Haplogroup I is present in Europe for 22,200 years.

Haplogroup E is present in Europe only for 10,000 years.

They can’t be native because that simple difference, and secondly % of HP I in balkans is bigger then of HP E.

Civilization doesn’t has too equal European neither Europid.

Well 2800 years ago there was no Slavic migration to Balkans, yet on Croatian island by archeological excavations I2 people are found that pre-date Slavs. 

Helens and Illyrians did however share common mythological ethnogenesis according to archeological research.

Greeks were Indo-Europeans and their mythology structure is same as of all Indo-Europeans i.e. Germanics, Slavs, Celts, Romans etc. Same as other Paleo-Europeans in north that took Germanic Indo-European mythology so did these take first Greek and later Slavic. It seems to me that you are trying to neglect and close your eyes before mixing with non-Europid carriers of Haplogroups E and J that happened in south with Greeks. If carriers of E weren’t Berbers then what genes did Berber neolithic farmers carry into Europe?

Well Haplogroup I and Haplogroup I2a2a aren’t two different haplogroups. The later one(I2a2a) is just a child of the Haplogroup I. a mutation, that’s why it’s younger. We find it among Slavs because only Slavs settled the parts where it was to be found. If Germanics settled ed this parts then they would carry it today and not us, i don’t understand what is to be misunderstood. You’re basically saying that Balkans was almost empty before arrival of Slavs then since numbers of HP E doesn’t support the amount of civilizations in Balkans prior to migrations.


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