Well 2800 years ago there was no Slavic migration to Balkans, yet on Croatian island by archeological excavations I2 people are found that pre-date Slavs.
Greeks were Indo-Europeans and their mythology structure is same as of all Indo-Europeans i.e. Germanics, Slavs, Celts, Romans etc. Same as other Paleo-Europeans in north that took Germanic Indo-European mythology so did these take first Greek and later Slavic. It seems to me that you are trying to neglect and close your eyes before mixing with non-Europid carriers of Haplogroups E and J that happened in south with Greeks. If carriers of E weren’t Berbers then what genes did Berber neolithic farmers carry into Europe?
Well Haplogroup I and Haplogroup I2a2a aren’t two different haplogroups. The later one(I2a2a) is just a child of the Haplogroup I. a mutation, that’s why it’s younger. We find it among Slavs because only Slavs settled the parts where it was to be found. If Germanics settled ed this parts then they would carry it today and not us, i don’t understand what is to be misunderstood. You’re basically saying that Balkans was almost empty before arrival of Slavs then since numbers of HP E doesn’t support the amount of civilizations in Balkans prior to migrations.
Nothing has to equal, but some things are plausible, some ain’t. It is a well known fact where the first civilisations emerged, and how they influenced the ones around them. E and J are mediterranean haplogroups, which spread supports the migration theories of the civilisation carriers, I isn’t. The mythologies in all archaic civilisations are similar (elements are attributed to deities). You may use ad hominem arguments, because you do not like non-Europeans, but that is chauvinism not a rational discussion. (btw. according to scientific rational research, we were all nig’gers sometime in the history, still I do not feel the urge to lynch myself)
What I am saying is that I2a2a isn’t Thraco-Illyrian but E-V13 is, since it is to young of a mutation to have had spread to the north in such a number, but fits in the theory of the Slavic migration to the Balkans. The Balkans wasn’t empty, it was just overwhelmed by us, which is also documented in the chronicles.
In plain language, I do not believe I2a2a to be the Illyrian marker, because that would mean that 2800 years ago, some Illyrians decided to leave their territory, migrate to the harsher north (which isn’t documented that ANY such group migrated to the north, except the Roman conquest), conquer or be conquered by every last one of those people that were to become the modern Slavs, and take their women, a task that not even the Romans achieved, which conquered the Illyrians. That is absolutely not plausible, so I do not believe that I2a2a is the Illyrian marker.