Really? How would you explain that while among Indians we have the highest genes that cluster with Slavs and we both relate by Indo-European language, while with Iranians we share neither genes neither language?

Slavic languages are part of Balto-Slavic subgroup of Indo-European languages, Iranian and Indo-Aryan of Indo-Iranian subgroup. I fail to se how we could have more similarities with Indo-Aryan lanuages, if we did not interact with them few thousand years, except with Gypsies.
Concerning of genetics, we could conclude such things only if we have detailed genetic picture of entire Slavic and entire Indian population. (Which was not done yet as far as I know).
So only cathegory of similarites left to us was cultural. Persian culture (both Islamic and pre-Islamic) is far more closer to us than Indian.


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