those maps are interesting, siničko, although… why do they show polish lowlands uninhabited by slavs?
its only logical that if they have been able to settle in mountain valleys, they must have settled in polish lowlands, too. there werent any avars or other crazy horseguys sitting in the middle of those lowlands. afaik.

Yeah it's funny but most maps aren't very correct anyways. ;D Maybe it was swampland back then? For example much of LJ "valley" was unihabitated swampland until 18th century. :D Anyways as for Prussian territory it's clear why not. Maybe it's area where archeological finds from that era were found? ???


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